posted on April 12, 2002 04:56:53 PM new
I've had this book lying around here for about a year that I've been meaning to read: "The History of Israel". You know, so I can have an *informed opinion*. But in all honesty it's 6+ years and I'm still trying to get thru "Baby's First Year".
So my question is? Do the Arab/Muslims have an original legitimate beef? How did it come to be that Palestinians, who I believe held that entire area, became "stateless"? Should've a fairer/better deal been struck?
Were the Palestinians *always* so ENRAGED?
(I am not debating or questioning the Jews need for a state.)
